Practice Questions Key

Exam #3

Spring 2007

 

Chapter 7  (States of Consciousness)

 

1.

Chemical substances that alter perceptions and moods are called ________ drugs.

 

A)

neuroadaptive

 

B)

narcoleptic

 

C)

psychoactive

 

D)

hypnagogic

 

2.

After a stressful day at the office, Arthur has five or six drinks at a local bar before going home for dinner. Research suggests that Arthur's heavy drinking will have the most adverse effect on his ability to remember:

 

A)

at the time he is drinking the names of the people he has just met.

 

B)

the next day the names of the people he talked to and what he said while drinking.

 

C)

at the time he is drinking the name of his employer and his own home address.

 

D)

the next day the names of the business associates he talked to before going to the bar.

 

3.

Jordanna has decided to go to bed early. Although her eyes are closed and she's very relaxed, she has not yet fallen asleep. An EEG is most likely to indicate the presence of:

 

A)

delta waves.

 

B)

alpha waves.

 

C)

sleep spindles.

 

D)

rapid eye movements.

 

4.

Which of the following is the best advice for a person concerned about occasional insomnia?

 

A)

Relax and drink a glass of milk before bedtime.

 

B)

Eat a big dinner late in the evening so you'll feel drowsy at bedtime.

 

C)

Relax with a drink of your favorite alcoholic beverage just before bedtime.

 

D)

Engage in some form of vigorous physical exercise shortly before bedtime.

 

5.

As Inge recalled her dream, she was dancing with a tall, dark gentleman when suddenly the music shifted to loud rock and the man disappeared. According to Freud, Inge's account represents the ________ content of her dream.

 

A)

paradoxical

 

B)

manifest

 

C)

latent

 

D)

hypnagogic

 

6.

After flying from California to New York, Arthur experienced a restless, sleepless night. His problem was most likely caused by a disruption of his normal:

 

A)

dopamine reward circuit.

 

B)

circadian rhythm.

 

C)

hypnagogic sensations.

 

D)

alpha wake patterns.

 

7.

The claim that hypnotic phenomena are regulated by control processes outside our normal awareness is associated with the theory that hypnosis involves:

 

A)

serial processing.

 

B)

dissociation.

 

C)

neuroadaptation.

 

D)

role playing.

 

8.

Girls with a history of physical abuse are at ________ risk for drug addiction. Those with a history of eating disorders are at risk for ________ drug addiction.

 

A)

increased; decreased

 

B)

decreased; increased

 

C)

increased; increased

 

D)

decreased; decreased

 

9.

Which of the following is a psychedelic drug?

 

A)

LSD

 

B)

cocaine

 

C)

heroin

 

D)

nicotine

 

10.

Researchers are most likely to question the value of hypnosis for:

 

A)

reducing fear.

 

B)

enhancing memory.

 

C)

relieving pain.

 

D)

facilitating relaxation.

 

11.

Bats need a lot of sleep because their high waking metabolism produces ________ that are toxic to neurons.

 

A)

dopamine reward circuits

 

B)

hypnagogic sensations

 

C)

free radicals

 

D)

alpha waves

 

12.

Which drugs are most likely to be prescribed as tranquilizers?

 

A)

amphetamines

 

B)

barbiturates

 

C)

hallucinogens

 

D)

opiates

 

13.

Alcohol consumption tends to:

 

A)

decrease self-awareness and increase feelings of guilt.

 

B)

increase self-awareness and decrease feelings of guilt.

 

C)

increase self-awareness and increase feelings of guilt.

 

D)

decrease self-awareness and decrease feelings of guilt.

 

14.

At 3 o'clock in the morning, John has already slept for 4 hours. As long as his sleep continues, we can expect an increasing occurrence of:

 

A)

hypnagogic sensations.

 

B)

muscle tension.

 

C)

REM sleep.

 

D)

Stage 4 sleep.

 

15.

Narcolepsy is a disorder involving:

 

A)

the temporary cessation of breathing during sleep.

 

B)

sudden uncontrollable seizures.

 

C)

periodic uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness.

 

D)

difficulty falling and staying asleep.

 

 

16.

The absence of a hypothalamic neural center that produces hypocretin has been linked to:

 

A)

insomnia.

 

B)

sleep apnea.

 

C)

narcolepsy.

 

D)

night terrors.

 

17.

Night terrors typically occur:

 

A)

among older adults.

 

B)

during REM sleep.

 

C)

following sleep apnea.

 

D)

within three hours of falling asleep.

 

18.

François was dismayed to discover that some of his football teammates were using drugs to enhance their footwork and endurance on the playing field. Which of the following drugs were the players most likely using?

 

A)

morphine derivatives

 

B)

marijuana

 

C)

amphetamines

 

D)

barbiturates

 

19.

The three categories of psychoactive drugs discussed in the text are depressants, stimulants, and:

 

A)

barbiturates.

 

B)

amphetamines.

 

C)

opiates.

 

D)

hallucinogens.

 

20.

According to Freud, the latent content of a dream refers to:

 

A)

its accompanying brain-wave pattern.

 

B)

the previous day's events that prompted the dream.

 

C)

the sensory stimuli in the sleeping environment that are incorporated into the dream.

 

D)

its underlying but censored meaning.

 

21.

Greg remembered a recent dream in which his girlfriend suddenly grabbed the wheel of his speeding car. Greg's therapist suggested that the dream might be a representation of the girlfriend's efforts to avoid sexual intimacy. According to Freud, the therapist was attempting to reveal the ________ of Greg's dream.

 

A)

neuroadaptation

 

B)

circadian rhythm

 

C)

latent content

 

D)

manifest content

 

22.

THC, the active ingredient in ________, is classified as a ________.

 

A)

marijuana; hallucinogen

 

B)

marijuana; stimulant

 

C)

cocaine; stimulant

 

D)

cocaine; hallucinogen

 

 

23.

Genital arousal is most likely to be associated with:

 

A)

sleep apnea.

 

B)

paradoxical sleep.

 

C)

Stage 4 sleep.

 

D)

sleep spindles.

 

24.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by the temporary cessation of breathing while asleep?

 

A)

narcolepsy

 

B)

sleep apnea

 

C)

night terror

 

D)

insomnia

 

25.

Symptoms of drug withdrawal are likely to be:

 

A)

most severe among those with low levels of drug tolerance.

 

B)

most severe among those with moderate levels of drug tolerance.

 

C)

most severe among those with high levels of drug tolerance.

 

D)

equally severe among those with low, moderate, or high levels of drug tolerance.

 

26.

Monism refers to the presumption that:

 

A)

hypnosis and REM sleep are identical states of consciousness.

 

B)

near-death experiences provide scientific evidence for life after death.

 

C)

different psychological theories offer complementary rather than contradictory perspectives.

 

D)

mind and body are different aspects of the same thing.

 

27.

The brain waves associated with REM sleep are most similar to those of:

 

A)

Stage 1 sleep.

 

B)

Stage 2 sleep.

 

C)

Stage 3 sleep.

 

D)

Stage 4 sleep.

 

28.

The need to take larger and larger doses of a drug in order to experience its effects is an indication of:

 

A)

withdrawal.

 

B)

dissociation.

 

C)

tolerance.

 

D)

narcolepsy.

 

29.

Those who emphasize that mood fluctuations may be indicative of seasonal affective disorder are highlighting the importance of:

 

A)

neuroadaptation.

 

B)

animal magnetism.

 

C)

biological rhythms.

 

D)

narcolepsy.

 

30.

Dreams often involve sudden emotional reactions and surprising changes in scene. This best serves to support the theory that dreams:

 

A)

strengthen our memories of the preceding day's events.

 

B)

reflect one's level of cognitive development.

 

C)

prepare us for the stress and challenges of the following day.

 

D)

are triggered by random bursts of neural activity.

 

Chapter 8 (Learning)

 

1.

Prolonged exposure to TV violence leads viewers to experience:

 

A)

more sympathy for victims of violence and to become more upset by the sight of real life violence.

 

B)

less sympathy for victims of violence and to become less upset by the sight of real life violence.

 

C)

more sympathy for victims of violence and to become less upset by the sight of real life violence.

 

D)

less sympathy for victims of violence and to become more upset by the sight of real life violence.

 

2.

Long after being bitten by a stray dog, Alonzo found that his fear of dogs seemed to have disappeared. To his surprise, however, when he was recently confronted by a stray dog, he experienced a sudden twinge of anxiety. This sudden anxiety best illustrates:

 

A)

delayed reinforcement.

 

B)

latent learning.

 

C)

spontaneous recovery.

 

D)

shaping.

 

3.

Garcia and Koelling's findings on taste aversion in rats challenged the previously accepted principle that:

 

A)

positive reinforcement is more effective than punishment in changing behavior.

 

B)

the US must immediately follow the CS for conditioning to occur.

 

C)

learning is influenced by the frequency of association between the CS and US.

 

D)

learning occurs only if a response is followed by reinforcement.

 

4.

The transmission of cultural fads and fashions best illustrates the impact of:

 

A)

respondent behavior.

 

B)

immediate reinforcement.

 

C)

spontaneous recovery.

 

D)

observational learning.

 

5.

In explaining prosocial behavior, B. F. Skinner would most likely have emphasized:

 

A)

genetic influences.

 

B)

an unconscious need for social approval.

 

C)

the internalization of moral values.

 

D)

the beneficial consequences of prosocial behavior.

 

6.

Research on the role of cognitive processes in learning indicates that the strength of a conditioned response depends primarily on the ________ of the CS-US association.

 

A)

frequency

 

B)

distinctiveness

 

C)

duration

 

D)

predictability

 

7.

By directly experiencing a thunderstorm, we learn that a flash of lightning signals an impending crash of thunder. This best illustrates:

 

A)

operant conditioning.

 

B)

the law of effect.

 

C)

observational learning.

 

D)

classical conditioning.

 

8.

The tendency for a CR to be evoked by stimuli similar to the CS is called:

 

A)

spontaneous recovery.

 

B)

conditioned reinforcement.

 

C)

latent learning.

 

D)

generalization.

 

9.

Because Mandisa would always pick up her newborn daughter when she began to cry, her daughter is now a real crybaby. In this case, picking up the infant served as a(n) ________ for crying.

 

A)

negative reinforcer

 

B)

conditioned stimulus

 

C)

positive reinforcer

 

D)

unconditioned stimulus

 

10.

Birds appear to be biologically predisposed to develop learned aversions to the ________ of tainted food.

 

A)

taste

 

B)

smell

 

C)

sight

 

D)

sound

 

11.

Which of the following provides evidence that a CR is not completely eliminated during extinction?

 

A)

partial reinforcement

 

B)

spontaneous recovery

 

C)

generalization

 

D)

discrimination

 

12.

Children exposed to a model who preached one thing and did another:

 

A)

ignored both what the model said and did.

 

B)

ignored what the model did and both talked and acted in ways consistent with what the model said.

 

C)

ignored what the model said and both talked and acted in ways consistent with what the model did.

 

D)

said what the model said and did what the model did.

 

13.

Two-year-old Philip was recently clawed by the neighbor's cat. Philip's newly developed tendency to fear all small animals demonstrates the process of:

 

A)

generalization.

 

B)

shaping.

 

C)

spontaneous recovery.

 

D)

secondary reinforcement.

 

14.

Luana edits manuscripts for a publisher and is paid $18 for every three pages she edits. Luana is reinforced on a ________ schedule.

 

A)

fixed-interval

 

B)

fixed-ratio

 

C)

variable-interval

 

D)

variable-ratio

 

15.

Because Saleem was spanked on several occasions for biting electric cords, he no longer does so. Saleem's behavior change best illustrates the value of:

 

A)

negative reinforcement.

 

B)

classical conditioning.

 

C)

conditioned reinforcers.

 

D)

operant conditioning.

 

16.

Mr. Zandee has stopped smoking because he wants to model healthy behavior patterns for his children. Mr. Zandee is apparently aware of the importance of ________ in his children's development.

 

A)

shaping

 

B)

observational learning

 

C)

generalization

 

D)

delayed reinforcement

 

17.

Elijah has learned to expect that whenever he studies diligently for tests, he will receive good grades. This suggests that associative learning involves:

 

A)

respondent behavior.

 

B)

cognitive processes.

 

C)

primary reinforcers.

 

D)

intermittent reinforcement.

 

18.

Intermittent reinforcement is associated with ________ acquisition and ________ extinction than continuous reinforcement.

 

A)

slower; faster

 

B)

faster; slower

 

C)

faster; faster

 

D)

slower; slower

 

19.

In order to teach an animal to perform a complex sequence of behaviors, animal trainers are most likely to use a procedure known as:

 

A)

delayed reinforcement.

 

B)

latent learning.

 

C)

generalization.

 

D)

shaping.

 

20.

Dr. Raheja places a rat in a small, glassenclosed chamber where it learns to press a bar to obtain a food pellet. Obviously, Dr. Raheja is using a ________ to study learning.

 

A)

Skinner box

 

B)

variable-ratio schedule

 

C)

Pavlovian maze

 

D)

cognitive map

 

21.

Although 5-year-old Katelyn is not really thirsty, she frequently begins whining for a glass of water about 10 minutes after being put to bed. Her parents would be best advised to:

 

A)

simply ignore her complaining.

 

B)

provide her with a very small drink of water.

 

C)

close her bedroom door to indicate that they disapprove of her whining.

 

D)

read her a short story so she forgets about wanting a drink.

 

22.

John B. Watson emphasized that:

 

A)

learning depends on how predictably rather than how frequently events are associated.

 

B)

unlike lower animals, humans learn through a process of cognition.

 

C)

both humans and lower animals learn to expect that a CS will be followed by a US.

 

D)

learning should be explained without any reference to mental processes.

 

23.

In order to modify your own behavior using operant conditioning principles, you should:

 

A)

monitor and record the actual frequency of the operant behavior you wish to promote.

 

B)

formulate goals for behavior change that are a bit more ambitious than what you can actually accomplish.

 

C)

carefully observe and imitate the specific behaviors practiced by others who have successfully achieved your goals.

 

D)

systematically reinforce the operant behavior you wish to promote with delayed rather than immediate reinforcers.

 

24.

Most researchers who have examined the effects of viewing televised aggression conclude that:

 

A)

viewing violence takes people's minds off their own problems and thus reduces their aggressive urges.

 

B)

viewing violence leads children and teenagers to behave aggressively.

 

C)

there is no correlation between viewing aggression and behaving aggressively.

 

D)

although viewing violence is correlated with increased aggression, there is no evidence that viewing violence actually leads to aggression.

 

25.

Pavlov is to classical conditioning as ________ is to ________.

 

A)

Thorndike; modeling

 

B)

Skinner; latent learning

 

C)

Bandura; observational learning

 

D)

Garcia; computerassisted instruction

 

26.

After Pavlov had conditioned a dog to salivate to a tone, he repeatedly sounded the tone without presenting the food. As a result, ________ occurred.

 

A)

generalization

 

B)

negative reinforcement

 

C)

latent learning

 

D)

extinction

 

27.

Because he is frequently yelled at by his football coach for swearing, Antonio has begun to experience anxiety when he's near his coach. The coach is a(n) ________ for Antonio's anxiety.

 

A)

negative reinforcer

 

B)

conditioned stimulus

 

C)

secondary reinforcer

 

D)

unconditioned stimulus

 

28.

Despite the painful hangovers that follow his use of alcohol, Boris continues to drink because just a couple of drinks begin to reduce his anxiety. His continued drinking most clearly illustrates the power of:

 

A)

generalization.

 

B)

spontaneous recovery.

 

C)

extinction.

 

D)

immediate reinforcement.

 

29.

In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, a CR was:

 

A)

salivation to the sound of a tone.

 

B)

salivation to the taste of food.

 

C)

the sound of a tone.

 

D)

the taste of food.

 

30.

A small-town radio disc jockey frequently announces how much money is currently in a jackpot. Every day several residents, randomly selected, are called and asked to identify the amount, and thereby win it. Those who keep track of the jackpot amount are most likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule.

 

A)

fixed-ratio

 

B)

variable-interval

 

C)

variable-ratio

 

D)

fixed-interval

 

 

 

Chapter 9 (Memory)

 

1.

By shrinking the hippocampus, prolonged stress is most likely to inhibit the process of:

 

A)

source misattribution.

 

B)

proactive interference.

 

C)

long-term memory formation.

 

D)

repression.

 

2.

Chunking refers to:

 

A)

getting information into memory through the use of visual imagery.

 

B)

the organization of information into meaningful units.

 

C)

the unconscious encoding of incidental information.

 

D)

the tendency to recall best the first item in a list.

 

3.

Storage is to encoding as ________ is to ________.

 

A)

recognition; recall

 

B)

imagery; mnemonics

 

C)

rehearsal; retrieval

 

D)

retention; acquisition

 

4.

Michael Ross and his colleagues observed that people exposed to very convincing arguments about the desirability of frequent toothbrushing tended to:

 

A)

quickly forget the arguments if they were in the habit of brushing frequently.

 

B)

quickly forget the arguments if they were not in the habit of brushing frequently.

 

C)

exaggerate how frequently they had brushed their teeth in the past.

 

D)

exaggerate how infrequently they had brushed their teeth in the past.

 

5.

After hamsters learned whether to turn right or left in a maze in order to find food, their body temperature was lowered until the electrical activity in their brains ceased. When the hamsters were revived, they still remembered what they had learned prior to the “blackout.” The hamsters' directional memory was apparently a(n) ________ memory.

 

A)

sensory

 

B)

short-term

 

C)

long-term

 

D)

implicit

 

6.

In order to explain the physical process of memory decay you need to understand:

 

A)

mood-congruent memory.

 

B)

the serial position effect.

 

C)

long-term potentiation.

 

D)

the spacing effect.

 

7.

After attending group therapy sessions for adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse, Karen mistakenly remembered details from others' traumatic life stories as part of her own life history. This best illustrates the dangers of:

 

A)

proactive interference.

 

B)

mood-congruent memory.

 

C)

implicit memory.

 

D)

source amnesia.

 

 

 

8.

Negative recall primed by distressing emotions most clearly illustrates:

 

A)

repression.

 

B)

retroactive interference.

 

C)

the misinformation effect.

 

D)

mood-congruent memory.

 

9.

Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned verbal information. Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned visual designs.

 

A)

right hippocampus; left hippocampus

 

B)

left hippocampus; right hippocampus

 

C)

right cerebellum; left cerebellum

 

D)

left cerebellum; right cerebellum

 

10.

Which test of memory typically provides the fewest retrieval cues?

 

A)

recognition

 

B)

recall

 

C)

relearning

 

D)

rehearsal

 

11.

Mood-congruent memory refers to the effect of emotional states on the process of:

 

A)

encoding.

 

B)

storage.

 

C)

retrieval.

 

D)

relearning.

 

12.

Watching a TV soap opera involving marital conflict and divorce led Andrea to recall several instances in which her husband had mistreated her. The effect of the TV program on Andrea's recall provides an example of:

 

A)

the spacing effect.

 

B)

repression.

 

C)

the serial position effect.

 

D)

priming.

 

13.

The conscious auditory rehearsal that facilitates long-term memory storage requires ______ memory.

 

A)

sensory

 

B)

working

 

C)

flashbulb

 

D)

implicit

 

14.

A retention of skills and dispositions without conscious recollection is known as ________ memory.

 

A)

state-dependent

 

B)

flashbulb

 

C)

short-term

 

D)

implicit

 

 

 

15.

Remembering how to solve a jigsaw puzzle without any conscious recollection that one can do so best illustrates ________ memory.

 

A)

explicit

 

B)

flashbulb

 

C)

implicit

 

D)

sensory

 

16.

For a moment after hearing his dog's high-pitched bark, Mr. Silvers has a vivid auditory impression of the dog's yelp. His experience most clearly illustrates ________ memory.

 

A)

short-term

 

B)

iconic

 

C)

implicit

 

D)

echoic

 

17.

Although Faustina can learn and remember how to read reversed mirror-image writing, she is unable to learn and remember the names of people to whom she has been introduced. Faustina is most likely to have suffered damage to her:

 

A)

hypothalamus.

 

B)

brainstem.

 

C)

hippocampus.

 

D)

cerebellum.

 

18.

Using the mnemonic ROY G. BIV to remember the colors of the rainbow in the order of wavelength illustrates the use of:

 

A)

the method of loci.

 

B)

an acronym.

 

C)

the spacing effect.

 

D)

the “peg-word” system.

 

19.

After having a stroke, Aaron has great difficulty recalling any of his subsequent life experiences. He is most likely suffering from:

 

A)

long-term potentiation.

 

B)

repression.

 

C)

mood-congruent memory.

 

D)

amnesia.

 

20.

During her psychology test, Kelsey could not remember the meaning of the term “proactive interference.” Surprisingly, however, she accurately remembered that the term appeared on the fourth line of a left-hand page in her textbook. Her memory of this incidental information is best explained in terms of:

 

A)

automatic processing.

 

B)

the spacing effect.

 

C)

the method of loci.

 

D)

the next-in-line effect.

 

21.

Déjà vu refers to the:

 

A)

emotional arousal produced by events that prime us to recall associated events.

 

B)

tendency to remember experiences that are consistent with one's current mood.

 

C)

unconscious activation of particular associations in memory.

 

D)

eerie sense of having previously experienced a situation or event.

 

 

22.

Your consciously activated but limited-capacity memory is called ________ memory.

 

A)

short-term

 

B)

implicit

 

C)

mood-congruent

 

D)

explicit

 

23.

When memory researcher Elizabeth Loftus was an adolescent, her uncle incorrectly insisted that as a child she had found her own mother's drowned body. Loftus herself later falsely recollected finding the body. This best illustrates:

 

A)

proactive interference.

 

B)

implicit memory.

 

C)

the misinformation effect.

 

D)

mood-congruent memory.

 

24.

When an eyewitness to an auto accident is asked to describe what happened, which test of memory is being used?

 

A)

recognition

 

B)

rehearsal

 

C)

recall

 

D)

relearning

 

25.

Long-term potentiation is a(n):

 

A)

elimination of anxiety-producing thoughts from conscious awareness.

 

B)

disruptive effect of prior learning on recall of new information.

 

C)

process of getting information out of memory.

 

D)

neural basis for learning and memory.

 

26.

The day after Kirsten was introduced to 13 people at a business luncheon, she could recall the names of only the first 4 people to whom she had been introduced. Her effective recall of these particular names best illustrates the benefits of:

 

A)

automatic processing.

 

B)

rehearsal.

 

C)

flashbulb memory.

 

D)

the method of loci.

 

27.

The process of getting information out of memory is called:

 

A)

encoding.

 

B)

relearning.

 

C)

retrieval.

 

D)

rehearsal.

 

28.

You should study before sleeping in order to minimize:

 

A)

mood-congruent memory.

 

B)

retroactive interference.

 

C)

long-term potentiation.

 

D)

the self-reference effect.

 

 

 

 

29.

Craik and Tulving experimentally demonstrated that people effectively remember seeing a specific word after they decide whether that word fits into an incomplete sentence. This research highlighted the effectiveness of:

 

A)

the method of loci.

 

B)

the “peg-word” system.

 

C)

semantic encoding.

 

D)

the next-in-line effect.

 

30.

Elaine's memory of her Paris vacation is more positive today than it was last year just after she went. This best illustrates:

 

A)

the self-reference effect.

 

B)

source amnesia.

 

C)

rosy retrospection.

 

D)

the spacing effect.

 

 

Chapter 13  (Emotion)

 

 

1.

Scientists have isolated a gene that influences the amygdala's response to frightening situations. People with a short version of this gene have high levels of ________ available to activate amygdala neurons.

 

A)

serotonin

 

B)

dopamine

 

C)

acetylcholine

 

D)

endorphins

 

 

2.

According to the ________, you would be able to experience emotion even without sympathetic nervous system arousals.

 

A)

Cannon-Bard theory

 

B)

James-Lange theory

 

C)

two-factor theory

 

D)

catharsis hypothesis

 

 

3.

Rosaria is upset with her husband for not putting his dirty clothes in the laundry basket. Anger experts would most likely recommend that she deal with her frustration by saying to him:

 

A)

“I'm not your mother. Take some responsibility.”

 

B)

“From now on I'm going to leave my dirty clothes around for you to pick up.”

 

C)

“It annoys me that you leave your dirty clothes for me to pick up.”

 

D)

“I refuse to make dinner until you do the laundry.”

 

 

4.

Boyd, a suspect in a criminal investigation, has agreed to take a lie detector test. The machine used in this test is most likely to measure his:

 

A)

blood sugar levels.

 

B)

pupil dilation.

 

C)

hormone secretions.

 

D)

perspiration levels.

 

 

5.

In their dispute over the role of cognition in emotion, both Zajonc and Lazarus agree that:

 

A)

cognitive reactions always precede emotional reactions.

 

B)

emotional reactions always precede cognitive reactions.

 

C)

some emotional reactions involve no conscious thinking.

 

D)

cognitive reactions and emotional reactions always occur simultaneously.

 

 

6.

While completing a final exam, Karen labels her arousal as energizing, whereas Mike labels his arousal as fear. The emotional experiences of the two test takers are likely to differ the most with respect to:

 

A)

duration.

 

B)

intensity.

 

C)

adaptation level.

 

D)

valence.

 

 

7.

In terms of ability to recognize others' facial expressions of emotion:

 

A)

introverts do better than extraverts and women do better than men.

 

B)

introverts do worse than extraverts and women do better than men.

 

C)

introverts do better than extraverts and women do worse than men.

 

D)

introverts do worse than extraverts and women do worse than men.

 

 

8.

After being physically aroused by his daily three-mile run, Martin finds that he experiences stronger resentment if his wife asks for an unexpected favor and more intense romantic feelings if she kisses him. Martin's experience can best be explained by the:

 

A)

two-factor theory.

 

B)

James-Lange theory.

 

C)

CannonBard theory.

 

D)

adaptation-level principle.

 

 

9.

A hormone that increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels in times of emergency is:

 

A)

acetylcholine.

 

B)

epinephrine.

 

C)

testosterone.

 

D)

insulin.

 

 

10.

Chiana and her husband both want to feel and express greater warmth and affection for each other. They would be advised to spend time looking intently at one another's:

 

A)

eyes.

 

B)

lips.

 

C)

hand gestures.

 

D)

body postures.

 

 

11.

Facial expressions of anger are most likely to facilitate:

 

A)

sympathetic nervous system arousal.

 

B)

the catharsis of hostile urges.

 

C)

feelings of love.

 

D)

empathy.

 

 

12.

The two-factor theory of emotion was proposed by:

 

A)

Walter Cannon and Philip Bard.

 

B)

Robert Zajonc and Richard Lazarus.

 

C)

William James and Carl Lange.

 

D)

Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer.

 

 

13.

Tranquilizing drugs that inhibit sympathetic nervous system activity often reduce people's subjective experience of intense anxiety. Which theory of emotion would have the greatest difficulty explaining this effect?

 

A)

James-Lange

 

B)

Cannon-Bard

 

C)

two-factor

 

D)

Schachter-Singer

 

 

14.

Research on the accuracy of lie detector tests suggests that they:

 

A)

are more accurate for men than women.

 

B)

are accurate only 50 percent of the time, even when administered by experts.

 

C)

are more likely to declare the innocent guilty than to declare the guilty innocent.

 

D)

are more likely to declare the guilty innocent than to declare the innocent guilty.

 

 

15.

According to the James-Lange theory, we experience emotion ________ we notice our physiological arousal. According to the Cannon-Bard theory we experience emotion ________ we become physiologically aroused.

 

A)

before; before

 

B)

before; after

 

C)

after; at the same time as

 

D)

at the same time as; after

 

 

16.

The James-Lange theory of emotion states that:

 

A)

to experience emotion is to be aware of one's physiological responses to an emotion-arousing event.

 

B)

the expression of emotion reduces one's level of physiological arousal.

 

C)

an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers both physiological arousal and the subjective experience of emotion.

 

D)

to experience emotion one must be physically aroused and able to cognitively label the emotion.

 

 

17.

When shown a face with an evenly mixed expression of fear and anger, ________ children were much quicker than other children to see anger.

 

A)

socially extraverted

 

B)

physically abused

 

C)

academically successful

 

D)

athletically skilled

 

 

18.

The autonomic nervous system regulates the ________ that accompanies different emotions.

 

A)

conscious experiences

 

B)

expressive behaviors

 

C)

physiological arousal

 

D)

subjective well-being

 

 

19.

When her son fails to arrive home as expected, Elena fears he has been in an accident. Both her heart and respiration rate remain elevated until she sees him come safely through the door. Her body soon returns to normal due to the action of her ________ nervous system.

 

A)

parasympathetic

 

B)

sympathetic

 

C)

central

 

D)

somatic

 

 

20.

Which of the following research findings is consistent with the James-Lange theory of emotion?

 

A)

Facial expressions of emotion inhibit the conscious experience of emotion.

 

B)

Distinctly different patterns of brain activity are associated with distinctly different emotions.

 

C)

People with spinal cord injuries experience a considerable increase in the intensity of their angry feelings.

 

D)

All of the above are consistent with the James-Lange theory.

 

 

21.

Lee was momentarily terrified as a passing automobile nearly sideswiped his car. When one of his passengers joked that he almost had a two-color car, Lee laughed uncontrollably. Lee's emotional volatility best illustrates the:

 

A)

adaptation-level phenomenon.

 

B)

relative deprivation principle.

 

C)

catharsis hypothesis.

 

D)

spillover effect.

 

 

22.

Haley's parents bought her a used bicycle for her birthday. She was thrilled until she learned that her best friend received a brand new bicycle on her birthday. Haley's declining satisfaction illustrates the:

 

A)

relative deprivation principle.

 

B)

adaptation-level phenomenon.

 

C)

catharsis hypothesis.

 

D)

facial feedback effect.

 

 

23.

People experience a mood shift when they switch from taking short shuffling steps to taking long strides and swinging their arms by their sides. This best illustrates:

 

A)

the adaptation-level phenomenon.

 

B)

the spillover effect.

 

C)

the behavior feedback phenomenon.

 

D)

the feel-good, do good phenomenon.

 

 

24.

The parasympathetic nervous system is to the sympathetic nervous system as ________ is to ________.

 

A)

raising of blood sugar; lowering of blood sugar

 

B)

inhibition of digestion; activation of digestion

 

C)

contraction of pupils; dilation of pupils

 

D)

increasing blood pressure; decreasing blood pressure

 

 

25.

Eva's boyfriend says he loves her, but she wants proof. In order to obtain the most trustworthy nonverbal signals of how he really feels, Eva should carefully observe:

 

A)

his general body posture when he stands near her.

 

B)

the way he holds her hand when they walk together.

 

C)

how close he stands to her when they are talking.

 

D)

his facial expressions when they spend time together.

 

 

26.

Rannilt was euphoric after learning that she had been accepted by the medical school of her choice. After a few weeks, however, she is only mildly excited when she thinks about her admission to medical school. This change in her feelings can best be explained in terms of the:

 

A)

catharsis hypothesis.

 

B)

relative deprivation principle.

 

C)

feel-good, do-good phenomenon.

 

D)

adaptation-level phenomenon.

 

 

27.

In which country are people most likely to convey obvious facial expressions of their inner feelings?

 

A)

China

 

B)

Australia

 

C)

Japan

 

D)

India

 

 

28.

Evidence that people can develop an emotional preference for stimuli to which they have been unknowingly exposed has convinced Robert Zajonc that:

 

A)

our thoughts are not influenced by our emotional states.

 

B)

our normal feelings of love and anger are typically irrational.

 

C)

the two-factor theory of emotion is essentially correct.

 

D)

sometimes emotions precede cognition.

 

 

29.

When confronted by an armed robber, your emotional arousal is likely to be accompanied by:

 

A)

decreases in blood sugar levels.

 

B)

slowing of digestion.

 

C)

increases in salivation.

 

D)

decreases in respiration rate.

 

 

30.

Relatively high levels of physiological arousal would most likely interfere with effectively:

 

A)

solving a crossword puzzle.

 

B)

repeating the alphabet.

 

C)

riding a bicycle.

 

D)

washing dishes.